Friday, October 10, 2014

America Estopped


1. INTRODUCTION

Media coverage of the US economy in the 1950s was usually accompanied by footage of things like workers on assembly lines, farmers driving harvesters, buildings under construction et cetera. The situation today is completely different. Current media coverage of the US economy usually includes footage of things like a herd of people making a mad dash at a Wal-Mart sale, people dining out at the Outback Steakhouse, drivers filling-up their tanks at the gas station et cetera. This sea-change in the media-perception of the US economy has led to a fierce debate about its underlying nature.

A) On one hand, we hear some economists and journalists claim that consumption is the driver of the US Economy ('liberal demand-siders'). This side argues that it is consumers who create jobs and not businesses; and they claim to speak for the 'toiling masses' and against the 'handful of privileged oligarchs'. Here are a few examples of this left-tilted view from the current media coverage:

B) On the other hand, we hear some economists and journalists insisting that it is investment that is the driver of all economies, including the US Economy ('conservative supply-siders'). This side argues that it is businesses that create jobs and not consumers; and they claim to speak for the 'hard-working entrepreneurs' and against the ‘lazy welfare-queens'. Here are a few examples of this right-tilted view from the current media coverage:

As is evident from the above-linked survey of the media, much discussion has been generated about the underlying nature of the US economy and its role in the world today. This is certainly an interesting debate with a variety of views professed by a number of worthy participants. Michael Pettis, for one, has suggested that the global imbalances we see today are related to the fact that different countries in the world have different types of economies. Therefore, the investment-driven economy of China and the net-exports driven economy of Germany, for example, tend to be counterbalanced by the consumption-driven economy of the US. His research suggests that even though each of the economies may be individually and separately imbalanced, the situation has continued for as long as it has because they complement each other’s deficiencies on a joint basis. In other words, over-production in one economy meets over-consumption in another economy, thereby keeping prices stable in the global markets. We will dwell no further on these global imbalances here and readers should visit Michael's blog for additional insights into these major issues.

In this article, we will instead focus on a much more specific question: What type of economy does United States really have? Is it a consumption-driven economy? Or is it an investment-driven economy? Or is it something else altogether?

2. DEFINITIONS

Before we examine the data, let us begin with some definitions:

1) Consumption-driven economy
An economy is said to be a consumption-driven economy when consumption-growth is faster than GDP-growth over the period examined. In other words, consumption-share of GDP rises in a secular (but not necessarily monotonous) fashion over that period. In such an economy, GDP-growth may either equal investment-growth or exceed it, implying that investment-share of GDP either remains a constant or falls in a secular fashion over the same period.

2) Investment-driven economy
An economy is said to be an investment-driven economy when investment-growth is faster than GDP-growth over the period examined. In other words, investment-share of GDP rises in a secular (but not necessarily monotonous) fashion over that period. In such an economy, GDP-growth may either equal consumption-growth or exceed it, implying that consumption share of GDP either remains a constant or falls in a secular fashion over the same period.

3) Mix-driven economy
Mix-driven economies are quite rare over extended periods of time, even though most economies do have short-periods of mix-driven growth every now and then. To define it, an economy is said to be a mix-driven economy when either of the following two situations are present:

Type I: GDP-growth is faster than both investment-growth and consumption-growth over the period examined. In such an economy, investment-share of GDP and consumption-share of GDP both fall in secular (but not necessarily monotonous) fashion during that period. The growth actually comes from either an increase in current-account surplus share of GDP or from a reduction in the current-account deficit share of GDP. In the case of the former, it is often called an 'export-driven' economy and in the case of the latter it is called a 'savings-driven' economy over the period examined.

Type II: Investment-growth and consumption-growth are both faster than GDP-growth over the period examined. In such an economy, investment-share of GDP and consumption-share of GDP both rise in a secular (but not necessarily monotonous) fashion during that period. The growth actually comes from either a decrease in current-account surplus share of GDP or from an increase in the current-account deficit share of GDP. Such an economy is called a 'consumption & investment driven' economy over the period examined.

4) Balance-driven economy
An economy is said to be a balance-driven economy, when investment-growth and consumption growth are both equal to the GDP-growth over the period examined. In other words, investment-share of GDP and consumption-share of GDP both remain constant in a secular (but not necessarily in a monotonous) sense over that period. In such an economy, by definition, the current-account surplus or deficit share of GDP also remains constant in a secular sense over the same period as examined. We note that since exactness is rarely found in nature, let alone in an economy, the theoretical words ‘equal’ and ‘constant’ in this paragraph should really be accompanied by the qualifier ‘approximately’ in practice.

Armed with these definitions, we are well-equipped to take a look at the trends in the demand-side component-shares of US economy over the last 30 years, as shown in the graph in figure 1:
FIGURE 1
From a quick observation of the graph, the secular trend of investment-share of GDP over the whole period seems to be downward, even though some local investment-driven periods can be observed as part of a cyclical (i.e. up & down) pattern. In addition, whereas they do seem to be some short-episodes with mix-driven growth, on the whole there is no secular trend that indicates that it was a mix-driven economy over the entire period. The only other clear trend that is immediately visible is that the secular trend of consumption-share of GDP over the whole period seems to be upward. From this, it does appear that the US has been a consumption-driven economy over the last 30 years. Perhaps this is why many economists and journalists refer to the US economy today as a 'consumption-driven economy'.

But is that what the US economy really is? Or does it merely appear so on a prima facie basis, while being something completely different upon closer examination?  To find the answer to this question, we need to separate and analyze the various internal sub-trends that compose and constitute the overall 30-year trend in the US economy. Once we have examined the various bits carefully, we can then put all of them back together to arrive at a better understanding of the state of the US economy over the last generation.

3. ANALYSIS

3.1 Background Equations

Here are the IMF-standard equations that describe the GDP from the demand-side:
GDP = Consumption + Savings --- (I)
Investment = Savings + Current-account Deficit ---- (II)

Using (II) in (I), we get the common form:
GDP = Consumption + Investment - Current-account Deficit ---- (III)

We can re-write (III) symbolically as:

In addition, we can write (IV) in incremental form for any given year as follows:

Still further, what is true on an annual increment basis for any given year in (V) can naturally be summed up over any given period consisting of a number of years as follows:

NOTES on equations (IV), (V) & (VI):

(1) If CAD/GDP is constant and consumption is growing faster than GDP (i.e. C/GDP is rising), then it follows that I/GDP must be falling, implying that GDP must be growing faster than Investment. This would be an example of consumption-driven growth.

(2) If CAD/GDP is constant and investment is growing faster than GDP (i.e. I/GDP is rising), then it follows that C/GDP must be falling, implying that GDP must be growing faster than consumption. This would be an example of investment-driven growth.

(3) If GDP is growing faster than both consumption & investment (i.e. C/GDP & I/GDP are both falling), then it follows that CAD/GDP must also be falling, implying that GDP must be growing faster than the CAD as well. This would be an example of Type-I mix-driven growth.

(4) If consumption & investment are both growing faster than GDP (i.e. C/GDP & I/GDP are both rising), then it follows that CAD/GDP must also be rising, implying that CAD must be growing faster than GDP as well. This would be an example of Type-II mix-driven growth.

(5) If consumption & investment are both growing at the same pace as GDP (i.e. C/GDP & I/GDP are both constant), then it follows that CAD/GDP must also be a constant, implying that the CAD must be growing at the same pace as GDP as well. This would be an example of balance-driven growth.

3.2 Data Collation

With the caveat that there are really only 2 degrees of freedom (see equations (I) & (IV)) in the data-field, here is a basic table of IMF-data that indicates the shares (expressed as % of GDP) of consumption, investment, CAD & savings. We note that the IMF data in this table are identical to the IMF data plotted in figure 1:

In addition, here is the corresponding table that displays the cumulative annual-increments (see equation (VI)) in the component-shares from 1984 (reference point) to 2012, expressed as percentage-points (PP) of GDP:

We need to begin with a visualization of the data in order to start the analysis. Therefore, we begin with a plot of the cumulative annual-increments (see equation (VI)) of component-shares from 1984-2012, exactly as shown in Table II:
FIGURE 2
It is obvious from figure 2 that there are a variety of growth-drivers during the long period from 1984 (reference year) to 2012. Clearly, we have numerous short-spells of investment-driven growth, mix-driven growth, balance-driven growth and consumption-driven growth, respectively. In addition, we know that there were three Keynesian actions (1989-91, 2000-03 & 2007-09) by the US government during the whole 1984-2012 period.

3.3 Types of Sub-Periods

(1) Consumption-driven growth (1984-1987)
As seen in figure 3, consumption-share of GDP increased during this sub-period, while investment-share of GDP fell. From the definitions provided above, we conclude that this sub-period had consumption-driven growth. The consumption-share growth in this sub-period was probably triggered by: (a) lowering of general income-tax rates, (b) elimination of specific consumption-taxes that were imposed during the 70s to contain demand & hence inflation, (c) proliferation of consumer-debt due to the rising CAD, and (d) lowering of real interest rates that aided the rise of this consumptive debt. 
FIGURE 3

(2) Mix-driven growth (1987-1989)
As seen in figure 4, consumption-share & investment-share of GDP both fell during this sub-period, implying that GDP was growing faster than both consumption & investment. According the definitions provided, we conclude that this sub-period had Type I mix-driven growth. The growth in this sub-period naturally came from a reduction in the current-account deficit share of GDP. This implies that savings alone grew faster than GDP during this time, and hence the economy could be said to have been 'savings-driven' over this sub-period.
FIGURE 4

(3) Keynesian-Estoppel (1989-1992)
This first Keynesian-Estoppel* sub-period began with the stock-market crash of 1989 and continued up to the recession of 1991. As seen in figures 5 (a) & (b), government-action forcibly drove-up the consumption-share GDP, even as the bust drove-down the investment-share of GDP. This is a special case and cannot be considered as standard ‘consumption-driven growth’, because natural consumption follows the decrease in investment and tends to also decline as fearful consumers attempt to increase their savings during the bust. It is government-action that borrows the ‘excess’ savings of these fearful consumers and forcibly converts it into consumption in order to prevent the economy from going into a free-fall decline. Therefore, this sub-period was an example of a state-diktat driven economy, in which US government action maintained consumption levels even as investment levels actually declined during 1989-92.

*Word-Definition: The word 'estoppel' is used here to mean an action by which the government prevents (or stops) the economy from taking a course it would otherwise have taken, in order to prevent a socially-painful or socially-unacceptable outcome. The word ‘stimulus’ has not been used here because a stimulus is applied as a temporary push to a slow or stagnant situation. On the other hand, when the economy is in free-fall and the government wishes to stop it from collapsing further, the action required is no longer called a ‘stimulus’, but rather more aptly described as an ‘estoppel’.
FIGURE 5(a)
FIGURE 5(b)

(4) Investment-driven growth (1992-1997)
As seen in figure 6, investment-share of GDP increased during this sub-period, while consumption-share of GDP fell. From the definitions provided above, we conclude that this sub-period had investment-driven growth. The investment-share growth in this sub-period was probably triggered by a general reduction in government-consumption levels made possible by the end of the Cold War.  The additional savings made available by the reduction of the government fiscal deficit (i.e. reverse of ‘crowding out’) during this period was recycled into investment, thereby leading to a strong spell of investment-led growth.
FIGURE 6

(5) Mix-driven growth (1997-2000)
As seen in figure 7, consumption-share & investment-share of GDP both increased during this sub-period, implying that consumption & investment were both growing faster than GDP. According the definitions provided, we conclude that this sub-period had Type II mix-driven growth. The growth in this sub-period naturally came from an escalation in the current-account deficit share of GDP. This implies that deficit-fueled consumer-debt must have been rising very quickly during this time, and hence the economy could be said to have been driven by rising ‘deficit-fueled investment & consumption’ over this sub-period.
FIGURE 7

(6) Keynesian-Estoppel (2000-2003)
This second Keynesian-Estoppel sub-period began with the bursting of the internet-bubble in 2000 and continued up to the recessionary conditions of 2003. As seen in figures 8 (a) & (b), government-action once again forcibly drove-up the consumption-share GDP, even as the bust drove-down the investment-share of GDP. The government borrowed the ‘excess’ savings by running fiscal deficit much larger than the one seen during the first Keynesian-Estoppel. It then forcibly converted this ‘excess’ savings into consumption by massive increases in government-consumption in order to prevent unemployment from rising. Therefore, this sub-period was another example of a state-diktat driven economy, in which US government action maintained consumption levels even as investment levels considerably declined during 2000-2002.
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FIGURE 8(a)
FIGURE 8(b)

(7) Investment-driven growth (2003-2007)
As seen in figure 9, investment-share of GDP increased during this sub-period, while consumption-share of GDP stayed approximately constant. From the definitions provided above, we conclude that this sub-period had investment-driven growth. The investment-share growth in this sub-period was obviously related to the growing of the housing-bubble, which triggered a general construction-boom. Given that consumption-share of GDP stayed approximately constant, as seen in the same figure, it is obvious that the housing-bubble was fueled by the rising CAD-share of GDP. In other words, investment & the CAD both grew faster than GDP, while consumption-growth trailed GDP-growth during this sub-period. This was clearly a deficit-fueled investment boom.
FIGURE 9

(8) Keynesian-Estoppel (2007-2009)
This third Keynesian-Estoppel sub-period began with the bursting of the housing-bubble in 2007, was amplified by the resulting financial-crisis of 2008, and continued up to the recessionary conditions of 2009. As seen in figures 10 (a) & (b), government-action once again forcibly drove-up the consumption-share GDP, even as the construction-bust drove-down the investment-share of GDP and sent unemployment sky-rocketing to levels unseen in a generation. The government again borrowed the ‘excess’ savings by running a fiscal deficit even larger than the one seen during the second Keynesian-Estoppel. It then forcibly converted this ‘excess’ savings into consumption by massive increases in government-consumption in order to prevent unemployment from rising. Therefore, this sub-period was another example of a state-diktat driven economy, in which US government action maintained consumption levels even as investment levels radically declined during 2007-2009.
FIGURE 10(a)
FIGURE 10(b)

(9) Investment-driven growth (2009-2012)
As seen in figure 11, investment-share of GDP increased during this sub-period, while consumption-share of GDP declined. The additional savings made available by the reduction of the government fiscal deficit (i.e. reverse of ‘crowding out’) during this period was recycled into investment, thereby leading to a spell of investment-led growth. Given that the CAD was approximately a constant during this period, we can conclude that this investment-driven sub-period was structurally more similar to the one during 1992-1997 (I-1) than to the one during 2003-2007 (I-2), and was therefore more ‘sustainable’
FIGURE 11

(10) Final re-assembly of all sub-periods (1984-2012)
In figures 12 (a), (b) & (c) below, all the various sub-periods described above have been compiled together in correct sequence to indicate the fluctuating patterns of the US economy’s growth-drivers.
FIGURE 12(a)
FIGURE 12(b)
FIGURE 12(c)

In addition, Table III (a) indicates the increases in component-share seen in each of the sub-periods.

Finally, Table III (b) sorts all similar growth sub-periods by type and provides increases in component-share across that particular type of growth-driver.

Note: As seen in Tables III (a) & (b), the average time-proportion spent in Keynesian-Estoppels over the last generation was a high 29%. This implies that the US spent, on average, 3 years in every 10 year-period in a state of crisis, with the government desperately trying to prevent economic collapse. This is an extreme result. In addition, contrary to the common-perception, the US spent only 11% of the time over the last generation in consumption-driven growth periods, while investment-driven growth periods predominated by occurring 43% of the time. 

4. DISCUSSION

4.1 Keynesian Imbalances in America

During the bust, as seen in figures 13 (a), (b) & (c), when investment collapses and panicked consumers attempt to increase saving, thereby sending the economy into free-fall, the government borrows the excess savings (i.e. increased savings - decreased investment) and converts it by force of state-will into consumption. This growth in government-consumption prevents the economy from contracting excessively and so buys time for imbalances (of debt, overcapacity etc.) to correct themselves in an orderly fashion. This is the Keynesian-Estoppel.
FIGURE 13(a)
FIGURE 13(b)
FIGURE 13(c)
Once the panic has subsided and confidence returns, the government must reverse this action during the next boom. It must reduce government-consumption share of GDP during the boom just as it has increased government-consumption share of GDP during the bust. In other words, as seen in figure 13 (b), government-consumption growth must significantly trail GDP-growth during the boom, in order to compensate for its leading of GDP-growth during the bust. This is known as the ‘Keynesian-Recharge’. If this ‘recharge’ is done correctly, total consumption-share of GDP returns to the level at which it was before the bust, and the system is then once again ready to perform another Estoppel at some future crisis.

The first Keynesian-Estoppel of the bust of 1989-92 was correctly ‘recharged’ during the subsequent investment boom of 1992-97. As seen in figure 6, consumption-share of GDP by 1997 had returned to the level at which it was in 1989. This implies that the first Estoppel was properly compensated and the system adequately ‘recharged’ for next use during the bursting of the internet-bubble in 2000.

However, the second Estoppel of the bust of 2000-03 was not ‘recharged’ during the subsequent housing-bubble investment-boom of 2003-06. As seen in figure 9, consumption-share of GDP by 2007 had still not returned to the level at which it was in 2000. This implies that the second Estoppel was not properly compensated and the system was not adequately ‘recharged’ before it was forced into use yet again in response to the bursting of the housing-bubble in 2007.

The third Keynesian-Estoppel of the bust of 2007-09 simply added to the uncorrected imbalance left over by the second Keynesian-Estoppel and sent consumption-share of GDP to even higher levels. As seen in figure 11, consumption-share of GDP by 2012 had still not returned to the level at which it was either in 2000 or even in 2007. This implies that the last-two Keynesian Estoppels have still not been properly compensated and the system is currently out of balance.

In summary, then, consumption-share of GDP has been sent too high by repeatedly applying Keynesian-Estoppels to the system during the busts, without implementing the corresponding Keynesian-Recharge during the intervening boom. It is clear that these frequent and large Keynesian Estoppels have ‘drained the batteries’ of the system. Unless it is recharged by completing the second part of the Keynesian prescription, it is possible that the Estoppel might fail during the next bust and send the economy into irreversible decline.

4.2 The Problem of the Current-account Deficit

The US current-account deficit (CAD) has been the subject of much vigorous debate. At first glance, it appears strange that a rich country like the US, which should ordinarily have no need to augment domestic-savings by running a CAD, should find itself in a situation in which it has been running a large, growing and sustained CAD over the last 30 years. In addition, since running a CAD implies, by definition, that the US is exporting aggregate demand, it has been argued that the CAD is damaging to the US because it is effectively importing unemployment from the surplus countries.

So why does the US continue to run the CAD? As it turns out, the US, as the provider of the global reserve currency, runs the CAD as the principal mechanism by which it provides dollars to meet the genuine reserve requirements of other countries in the world.  A genuine reserve requirement for a country is often said to be equal to 2 months of imports, or 6 months of deficits, or 100-200% of short-term external-debt of that country. Such reserves allow other countries to dampen currency-volatility (spread out any sudden-changes over time) and also provide 'insurance' against any sudden exogenously-triggered liquidity withdrawals, thereby enhancing market-stability in those countries. Given the importance of the dollar to lubricate global trade, as well as the genuine need of other countries to hold modest levels of reserves, therefore, the US cannot eliminate its CAD or try to run a surplus. Such an action on part of the US would damage the world by enhancing market-uncertainty and increasing friction ('de-lubricate') in international trade settlements. Obviously, damaging the world would automatically damage the United States itself.

So then is the US, as the provider of the de facto international reserve currency, doomed to suffer from loss of demand and possibly higher-unemployment because it has no choice but to run a CAD for the sake of the world?

Before we mount our crosses in martyrdom, let us use equation (VI) to examine whether it is really the CAD itself that is harmful, or whether it is the temporal derivative of the CAD-share (i.e. the rising of the CAD as % of GDP) that represents the real danger to the US. Let us examine the two cases separately as follows:

CASE I: Constant CAD-share of GDP

As seen in equation (VI), if the CAD-share of GDP were a constant, then any increase in I/GDP would automatically lead to a decrease in C/GDP. The decrease in C/GDP would gradually lead to evolving excess-capacity and hence puts a lid on any excessive investment-overhang. Conversely, any increase in C/GDP would automatically lead to a decrease in I/GDP. The decrease in I/GDP would gradually lead to inflation by virtue of evolving under-capacity and hence put a cap on any excessive consumption-overhang via raising of interest rates. An economy in a state like this would see normal business-cycles with small progressions, small recessions and small Keynesian Estoppels. In other words, a small, steady CAD would get 'adjusted' into the US economy and would cause no special damage, either in terms of unemployment or in terms of imbalance-formation & instability-magnification.

Case II: Rising CAD-share of GDP

A rising CAD-share of GDP, on the other hand, tends to amplify the underlying business cycles and thus leads to massive boom & bust phenomena. For example, as seen in equation (VI), if I/GDP is rising, a rising CAD/GDP may allow C/GDP to also rise simultaneously (see sub-period M-2 during 1997-2000 in figure 7). Alternately, it could prevent the C/GDP from falling, even as it simultaneously adds more fuel to the rise of I/GDP (see sub-period I-2 during 2003-2006 in figure 9). The natural constraint of over-capacity that was seen in Case-I would be severely weakened. Therefore, the resulting boom proceeds much farther (i.e. the imbalance grows much larger) than would have been otherwise possible, leading to the creation of a massive investment-bubble. In the end, the unwinding of this super-charged investment-cycle leads to a serious and painful bust.

Similarly, if C/GDP is rising, a rising CAD/GDP may allow I/GDP to also rise simultaneously (see sub-period M-2 during 1997-2000 in figure 7). Alternately, it could prevent I/GDP from falling, even as it simultaneously adds more fuel to the rise of C/GDP. The natural constraint from inflation (and hence raising of interest rates) due to evolving under-capacity that was seen in Case-I would be severely weakened. Therefore, once again, the resulting boom proceeds much farther (i.e. the imbalance grows much larger) than would have been possible, leading to the creation of a massive consumption-bubble. In the end, the unwinding of this super-charged consumption-cycle also leads to a serious and painful bust.  

Clearly, it was the rising of CAD/GDP in the US (from 2% in 1997 to 6% in 2006) that was responsible for amplifying the internet-bubble (1997-2000) and the housing-bubble (2003-2006) into super-massive boom & bust phenomena. This is clearly evident in sub-periods M-1 (1997-2000) and I-2 (2003-2006) indicated in the graphs. In light of this, researchers should move their focus away from the CAD itself and instead examine the large-amplitude cycles of the CAD, which tend to magnify the boom and the bust phases of the US Economy and hence require ever-larger and ever more-frequent Keynesian Estoppels.

QUESTION: What would the US economy have been like, had it hypothetically managed to maintain a constant CAD/GDP during 1984-2012?

Here are the approximate counter-factual trends that would have been seen had the US managed (hypothetically) to maintain a constant CAD of 2% of GDP over the last 30 years:
FIGURE 14(a)
FIGURE 14(b)
As seen in figures 14 (a) & (b), the C/GDP & I/GDP would have had no obvious secular-trend as both would have been largely cyclical. Sometimes we would have seen investment-driven growth, sometimes consumption-driven growth, and balance-driven growth would have occurred for the rest of the time. We note that 'mix-driven growth’, by definition, is not possible in an economy with a constant CAD/GDP ratio. As also seen in the graph, we would still have seen the usual business-cycles, but the high consumption-levels that we see today would not have developed, because the Keynesian-Estoppels would have been much smaller in magnitude and more easily recharged in each cycle.

This leads us to an astonishing conclusion: A steady CAD of 2% of GDP would cause less harm than a cyclical variation of the CAD between 0% and 4% of GDP, even if the average CAD across the cycles were to be at the same at 2% of GDP level. This is because the former would get 'absorbed' into the natural ebb & flow on the US economy, while the latter would naturally tend to magnify or amplify its internal boom & bust cycles.

4.3 The Leaking-Demand Problem

During the bust, the Government props up demand by borrowing the excess savings (i.e. difference between savings and the falling investment) and spending it to prevent consumption-growth from collapsing along with investment-growth. Given that the CAD is merely an expression of inadequate savings (i.e. a CAD implies that investment needs are greater than domestic savings present), it follows that the CAD should ideally vanish during the bust. In practice, of course, the CAD does not completely disappear, but the CAD-share of GDP usually decreases during the bust, as seen in figures 5 and 10.

Since the decrease in the CAD-share of GDP ‘assists’ the government in propping-up domestic-demand, we can perform a comparative study of ‘load-sharing’ to determine how much of demand increase came from additional government-spending and how much from the reduction of the CAD-share, as shown in Charts 1 (a) & 1 (b):
CHART 1(a)
CHART 1(b)
From Chart 1(b), it appears that during the first Keynesian Estoppel (1989-92), government spending did ~62% of the work and the reduction in the CAD-share did ~38% of the work of increasing domestic demand to offset the falling investment during the bust.

Similarly, during the third Keynesian Estoppel (2007-09), government spending did ~54% of the work and the reduction in the CAD-share did ~46% of the work, implying that it was slightly more efficient than the first case in which more of the demand ‘leaked out’.

The same chart indicates, however, that during the second Keynesian Estoppel (2000-03), the government spending did ~125% of the work and the reduction in the CAD did ~ -25% of the work of increasing domestic demand to offset the falling investment of the bust. This is a shocking and disturbing result. As seen in figure 8, even as the government was desperately trying to shore-up demand during the 2000-03 bust, the CAD was actually increasing over that period. This makes no sense whatsoever; it is almost schizophrenic in character. While on one hand increased government deficit-spending is indicating that an excess of domestic savings exists in the economy, on the other hand the CAD-share is increasing, indicating a deficiency of domestic savings in the economy. This leaves the observer confused; it cannot simultaneously be both, so which is it? Clearly, we can see that the rising CAD once again made a bad situation much worse.

5. CONCLUSIONS

5.1 Managed Moderation

The US must set a deficit-target within a range of 2-3%. If the world needs US Dollars for use outside of US trade, the world can certainly have US Dollars via a reasonable, manageable and managed deficit. A discussion & consensus will be needed between the US and the East-Asian and Germanic countries so that this target can be maintained. For example, if the US deficit rises above 3%, the East-Asian and Germanic countries will have to agree to take action (reduce wage-repression, financial-repression, adjust currency-pegs etc.) to reduce their surpluses. Conversely, if the US deficit falls below 2% and a global-shortage of dollars appears for genuine reserve needs, the resulting dollar-demand would naturally strengthen the dollar and move the deficit back into the targeted range. Once the US CAD is stabilized, the business cycles within the US will stabilize and the extraordinary magnitude of the amplified boom and bust sequences we have seen over the last 20 years will become a thing of the past.

With the rapid-rise of Asian economies, it is reasonable to assume that the US economy will keep becoming an ever-smaller share of the global economy. If the US then implements bounds on its CAD, then it will naturally reduce the ability of fast-growing large-countries like China to keep running large surpluses. The only solution to this problem is for large, planned-deficit countries like India to also grow fast and so provide additional sinks for the global surpluses.
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5.2 Uncle Sam's Meddling

It is true that government meddling in trade and/or in the economy generally leads to inefficiency, and is hence usually undesirable and sometimes even dangerous. However, we note that the term 'government-meddling in the US economy’ is often incorrectly used to imply only the interference of the US government. Even if the US government does not meddle in the US economy, it is obvious that the German, Chinese and Saudi governments, for example, are already meddling with it. In a globalized, free-trade system, the meddling of foreign governments in their own economies automatically affects the US economy via trade-imbalancing and capital-distortions. Therefore, interventionist foreign-governments effectively end-up meddling in the US economy, regardless of whether that is their intention or not. In light of this, the ideological opposition to US government interference in trade (or the economy) -- while historically and rationally valid-- is no longer justified in the context of the global trade system we have today. The ideologues of this anti-government variety, who often refer to Keynesian-Estoppels as 'Voodoo Economics', and who have so far been insisting that the US Government stays out of the economy, will have to choose between following three options in the near future:
(a) Get all foreign governments to stop meddling with their own economies, or,
(b) Stop trading with the world and turn the US into an isolationist country, or,
(c) Accept that the US government with have to take counter-actions as needed.

5.3 The Nature of the US Economy

Even though the US Economy appeared to be consumption-driven from a quick inspection of figure 1 at the top of this article, a more detailed analysis (see Table III (b)) has now revealed that:
(a) The US economy spent only 11% of the time during the last 28 years in consumption-driven growth mode, with consumption-share of GDP rising.
(b) Mix-driven growth occurred 18% of the time, with the increasing consumption-share sub-type (i.e. Type II mix-driven growth) occurring only 10% of the time.
(c) Investment-driven growth, with consumption-share of GDP falling, predominated during the last 28 years by occurring 43% of the time.
(d) The economy spent 28% of the time over the last 28 years in Keynesian-Estoppel mode, with government-diktat guiding the economy in order to prevent collapse.

In light of the above, a more nuanced descriptor is clearly needed for the US Economy. As seen in Table III (b), the total increase in consumption-share over the last generation has been 6.5 percentage-points of GDP. We could divide this 6.5 PP increase into three parts as follows:

PART 1) As seen in the last 4-rows of Table III (a), an increase in consumption-share of 3.2 percentage-points of GDP over the last 12-14 years is directly attributable to the two un-recharged Keynesian Estoppels. Once they are adequately compensated, this increase will simply vanish and the US economy will rebalance. In fact, as it turns out, this is exactly what the IMF projects will happen over the next few years, as seen in figures 15 (a) & (b).
FIGURE 15(a)
FIGURE 15(b)
PART 2) An increase in consumption-share of ~ 2.8 percentage-points of GDP over the last 28 years may be simply attributed to the increase in the old-age dependency ratio in America. Even though the US may not be aging as fast as Japan & Germany, the baby-boomer retirement wave implies that a larger section of the population has been retiring to consume without producing. This automatically leads to a slowly-rising consumption-share of GDP and is a natural phenomenon unconnected to deliberate consumer-behavior.

PART 3) This finally leaves a tiny and almost statistically-irrelevant increase in consumption-share of ~ 0.5 percentage-points of GDP over the last 28 years to be attributed to the ‘frivolous, bling-loving, shopaholic’ American Consumer.

In final summary, therefore, the US economy is not naturally the 'consumption-driven' economy that it appears to be on prima facie examination. In its natural state, it is a balanced economy that simply alternates between investment-driven and consumption-driven cycles, with some pure balance-driven periods and Keynesian-Estoppels thrown in. The primary reason why it superficially appears to be a consumer-driven economy is because of the imbalances created by uncompensated large Keynesian-Estoppels, which were themselves the consequence of a large & rising CAD. The secondary reason why it superficially appears to be a consumer-driven economy is because the retirement-pattern naturally causes consumption to rise slightly faster than production as part of a classical aging-demographic pattern. Once we correctly account for these two factors, the myth of cultural consumer-excess in the US is automatically shattered.


Thursday, October 2, 2014

The Chinese Pendulum

1. INTRODUCTION

The spectacular GDP-growth that China has managed to achieve, without a single recession over the past 30 years, has led to considerable academic and media interest in China’s economy. In particular, there has been extensive discussion and debate about the growing economic-imbalances in China. Michael Pettis, for example, has examined the sources of China’s rapid growth and analyzed its growing imbalances in great detail. Michael’s demand-side research provides clear insight into the origins of China’s growing imbalances, and suggests that China must correct these imbalances (i.e. ‘rebalance’) soon in order to avoid a debt-crisis. Michael’s research also shows that slower future GDP growth in China will be a necessary consequence of this rebalancing. 

For the convenience of the reader, here is a quick summary of Michael's outlook for China’s upcoming rebalancing-phase from his insightful demand-side analysis:
(1) Growth: There will be no crash in China. Instead, China will see a slow descent of growth-rates over a long period. GDP growth rates will fall, but they will be 'front loaded', with each passing year showing slower growth.
(2) Consumption: Consumption as share of GDP will rise, as China shifts to a consumption-led growth pattern (i.e. consumption-growth will be higher than GDP growth) in order to rebalance. As consumption-share of GDP rises, the savings-rate must necessarily fall, as they are merely the inverse of each other.
(3) Investment: Investment share of GDP will fall, as China sharply reduces investment-growth to prevent bad-debts from getting out of control and creating a banking-crisis. The investment-growth rate will be lower than the slowing GDP-growth rate and will tend to 'drag it down'.

Michael’s forecast for China is logically-sound and agrees with the general trends seen in numerous such rebalancing episodes that have occurred all over the world, ranging from Latin-America in the 1980s to Japan in the 1990s. However, we will not dwell excessively on China’s current imbalances here. Readers should visit Michael's blog for additional information on his insights into the current imbalances in China's economy.

In this article, we will instead focus on the past of China’s economic trajectory and also extend Michael’s sound demand-side research to a complementary supply-side study of events and trends.

Let us first define a non-trivial ‘imbalance’ for a developing country as a situation where consumption-share of GDP is less than 65% and falling secularly (but not necessarily monotonously) for an extended period. Alternatively, we could define it as a situation where savings-share of GDP is greater than 35% and rising secularly (but not necessarily monotonously) for an extended period. We note that savings are exactly equal to the sum of investment plus net-exports (i.e. external-surplus) as a matter of accounting identities.

Using this definition, as shown in the graph below, we can divide the Chinese economy of the past 30-years into three distinct phases:
(I) The First Imbalance-formation (1985-1994)
(II) The First Rebalancing (1994-2000)
(III) The Second Imbalance-formation (2000-Present)
The data shown in the graph above clearly indicate that the upcoming rebalancing that the whole world is expecting to see in China would actually be its second rebalancing. In order to forecast the effects of the upcoming rebalancing, therefore, we must examine the effects of its previous rebalancing in the 1990s.

2.  THE FIRST REBALANCING

A) Why did China rebalance the first time around?

The evidence indicates that investment-excesses had piled up from the first imbalance-formation phase from 1985-1994. To prevent the resulting bad-debts from overwhelming the state-owned banking system, China had no choice but to bring its run-away investment growth under control. We know that this is true, because, as shown in the graph below, China dramatically raised the bank-margins to a new high of 3.5% in order to recapitalize the banks in 1994.

B) What were the mechanisms that caused the first rebalancing?

In addition to increasing the bank-margins to recapitalize the banks, China also allowed real interest-rates to rise from 1994 onward as shown in the graph below. As Michael has shown in his research, low real interest-rates effectively act as a subsidy to investment and as a tax on consumption. This form of financial-repression is a key mechanism by which investment-led growth is created and imbalances formed in the Chinese economy. Therefore, as China raised the real interest-rate, it removed the subsidy to investment and reduced the effective tax on consumption. In effect, it reversed the interest-rates policies that had created the growing imbalance during 1985-94. Naturally, this increase in the real interest-rate caused investment growth to decline. Consumption growth moved ahead nicely, because Chinese households were now receiving much higher real returns on their bank-deposit savings. This appears to have been the principle mechanism by which the first rebalancing was achieved.

Here then is a quick summary of what happened during China’s first rebalancing during 1994-2000, and should be juxtaposed with Michael’s current-outlook for China (listed at the top) to see the obvious similarities:
 (1) Growth: There was no crash in 1994. Instead, China faced a slow descent of growth-rates over 6-year period from 1994 to 2000. Growth rates fell consistently over the period, but they were 'front loaded', with each passing year showing slower growth.
(2) Consumption: Consumption growth stayed steady even as GDP growth fell, and so consumption as share of GDP rose. In other words, China shifted to a consumption-led growth pattern order in order to rebalance. As consumption-share of GDP rose, the savings-rate necessarily fell, as they are merely the inverse of each other.
(3) Investment: Investment share of GDP fell, as China sharply reduced investment-growth to prevent bad-debts from growing out of control. The investment-growth rate was lower than the slowing GDP-growth rate and tended to 'drag it down'. In addition, China dramatically raised bank-margins to recapitalized the banks and prevent a financial crisis.

C) Why did China go back into imbalance formation after 2000?

As seen in the following graph, after having reasonably rebalanced in the nineties, China suddenly made a dramatic U-turn and rushed off at top-speed back into a state of imbalance-formation for a second time after 2000.

It is possible that the Chinese leaders felt that the bad-debt problem has been resolved and the banks adequately capitalized and so decided to return to the old ways of financial-repression generated imbalances. However, the more likely reason why China went back into massive imbalance formation after 2000 seems to have been the collapse of the internet-bubble in the United States. As seen in the following graph, unemployment took a dramatic turn upwards, probably as numerous labor-intensive export-related jobs were lost in response to the drop in consumption in the US and other countries at that time.
We note with some interest that this is the exact response we saw from China when the housing-bubble burst and the financial crisis arrived in the US in 2008. From this past evidence, it appears that Chinese policy-makers had decided long-ago that the best response to any external demand-shock is to trigger an investment-binge in order to prevent rising-unemployment and to minimize the risk of political instability.

D) How did China re-create the rising imbalances after 2000?

In order to prevent political unrest, China needed to keep unemployment from rising; and the easiest way to create lots of jobs was to trigger a construction boom. Therefore, China merely reversed the rebalancing interest-rate policy of 1994-2000 and re-introduced old financial-repression interest-rate patterns. As seen in the graph below, after peaking in 1998-99, China allowed real interest rates to drop sharply. This automatically led to rising subsidized investment-growth and a slow-down in consumption-growth, thereby taking China into its second imbalance-formation phase.

Once the imbalance-formation pattern had been re-ignited in response to the external demand-shock in 2000, the Chinese government probably ‘lost control’ (because of the ‘vested interests’) of the investment-boom and so the imbalances continued to grow even after healthy US consumption-patterns returned to the global markets after 2003-04.

Having delineated the general demand-side effects of the first rebalancing, we now turn to its supply-side effects. What effect did rebalancing itself have on unemployment? If the rebalancing had little effect on unemployment, then where was its effect felt on the supply­-side? Did it have an effect on productivity? To get the answers to these questions, we must move beyond Michael's original demand-side research and also perform a supply-side analysis of the first rebalancing in China.
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3. SUPPLY SIDE ANALYSIS

In order to understand the mechanisms & effects of rebalancing in China, we should compare the trends seen during its first rebalancing phase (~1994-2000) to the trends seen during its second imbalance-formation phase (~2000-2006). By carefully observing the differences between the supply-side sources of growth in the two distinct phases, we can then identify the key-effects of rebalancing and then extend them to analyze China’s prospects for its upcoming second rebalancing

We will use a standard supply-side analysis as follows:

(a) Trends in total GDP*+
(b) Trends in per capita GDP*
*Note: Unlike Yen & Euro, the Chinese RMB is a pegged currency. Therefore, PPP figures have been used instead of the nominal USD ones. + Constant PPP figures are not available graphed online and so current figures have been linked as a substitute. All growth rates are calculated from PPP figures, not nominal ones.
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The supply-side sources of this ‘growth’ are:
(i) Trends in the Productivity
(ii) Trends in the Participation-rate
(iii) Trends in the Demographic Profile
(iv) Trends in the growth of Population
http://alturl.com/mf4a7

Here are the tabulated end-point data for the first rebalancing (1994-2000) in China extracted from the World Bank data linked above: 

Similarly, here are the tabulated end-point data for the second imbalance-formation (2000-2006) extracted from the World Bank data linked above: 
Finally, here is the tabulated comparison between the average supply-side sources of growth (expressed as Cumulative Annualized Growth Rates or CAGR) over the two different phases in China:

4. DISCUSSION

4.1 Employment

The rebalancing of the 1990s clearly had negligible net-impact on unemployment. In fact, as seen in the preceding sections, it was the sudden rise in unemployment in 2000, probably caused by the collapse in external demand after the bursting of the US internet bubble, which led China to end the rebalance and go back into imbalance-formation in order to quickly create jobs. Therefore, using the example set by this precedent, we can safely say that the upcoming rebalancing in China will not lead to any significant rise in unemployment or political unrest.

In fact, given that job-seeker growth rates were higher during the 1990s (due to younger demographics) and are significantly lower now (due to demographic maturing), it follows that China will have even less of a problem with the issue of unemployment during its upcoming rebalancing that it did during its first rebalancing.

In addition, during the rebalancing of the 1990s, job-growth was preserved by means of rapid growth in the labor-intensive services sector. As seen in the figures below, the services-sector grew faster than GDP, while growth in the capital-intensive industrial-sector trailed GDP growth. As a result, the services-share of GDP grew, while the industry-share and manufacturing-share of GDP fell during the rebalancing period. This is a distinct pattern and should be expected to re-appear during China's upcoming second rebalancing.

4.2 Productivity & Labor

Since lower productivity-growth automatically leads to lower GDP-growth, it was clearly productivity that was the primary mechanism by which the slow-down required for rebalancing was achieved in the 1990s. In addition, we note that since one of the components of productivity is capital-deepening, the reduction in investment-growth during the rebalancing shows up automatically as a reduction in productivity-growth.

As seen in the preceding table, labor contributions were higher during the lower-growth rebalancing phase and actually fell during the higher-growth second imbalance-formation phase. This trend is a natural outcome of a peaking demographic profile and slowing population growth and had little to do with either rebalancing or imbalance-formation.

4.2 Capital & Efficiency

We note that ‘productivity’ has two principle components: (a) capital and (b) efficiency. Therefore, when we speak of productivity, we must distinguish as necessary between its two components. As seen in the preceding tables, the lowering of productivity-growth during the rebalancing in the 1990s was accompanied by a gain in efficiency. This implies that even though investment growth was slower during the rebalancing period, the actual investments made (i.e. capital deployed) during that period were much more judicious and productive.

Conversely, as seen in the same table, the increase in productivity-growth during the second imbalance-formation phase after 2000 was accompanied by a huge loss in efficiency. This implies that even though investment growth was faster during the imbalance-formation period, the actual investments made (i.e. capital deployed) during that period were much more indiscriminate and wasteful (i.e. malinvestment).

4.3 Quantity v/s Quality of Growth

Given that we live in a world that seems to have a growth-number fetish, it is helpful to take another look at the efficiency contributions listed in the preceding table. As seen in that table, even though output-growth was slow during the rebalancing phase in the 1990s, the associated efficiency-growth number was actually quite healthy. Conversely, even though the output-growth number increased significantly during the following imbalance-formation phase, the associated efficiency-growth number actually turned negative. A negative efficiency-growth number means that the economy is becoming less efficient (i.e. ‘wasting capital’ or ‘destroying wealth’) and generally indicates massive malinvestment.

This is the essence of the difference between the two concepts of ‘quantity of growth’ and quality of growth’. For example, slower GDP growth with rising efficiency may be better than faster GDP growth with falling efficiency. Keeping this in mind, we can conclude that even though the GDP growth number will decline as China enters into its upcoming rebalancing phase, the underlying efficiency of the economy will actually increase. This ‘rebalancing’ will transform China’s economy from a fast-growing, grossly-wasteful and unbalanced one into to a slower-growing, more-efficient and balanced one.

5. CONCLUSIONS

5.1 The Long Rebalancing

As seen in the graph below, in the first swing of the pendulum (1985-2000), we saw the imbalances grow at about 1 percentage-point of GDP a year for 9 years (1985-1994), and then we saw the rebalancing occur at about the same 1 percentage-point GDP a year for the next 6 years (1994-2000). In light of this, we could call the first rebalancing in China as the ‘Short Rebalancing’.
This time around, however, the imbalances grew a total of 12-13 percentage-points of GDP within a short-period of 6 years (2000 to 2006), giving us an annual imbalance-growth of 2 percentage-points of GDP. This implies that the second imbalance formation was twice as strong as the original one. In addition, this large imbalance of 12-13 percentage-points of GDP reached in 2006-7 has now been maintained at that level for another 6 years up to now. This implies that the second imbalance formation was also twice as long as the original one.

Given the severity of the second imbalance-formation and its extraordinary length of its persistence, we can say that the upcoming second rebalancing will be neither easy nor short. In fact, the problem is now four (= 2X2) times bigger than it was in 1994 when the first rebalancing was initiated. Therefore, the upcoming rebalancing will be long and hard, and this is why we could name it as the ‘Long Rebalancing’.

Still further, we note that once large excess investment-levels have persisted for long periods, it is only to be expected that the rebalancing will have to go beyond the usual target (35% investment) and must reduce future investment-levels even further to compensate for the excess investments made during the long and severe imbalance-formation stage in the past.

Taking into account all of the above factors, we can roughly estimate that if average GDP growth-rates (i.e. CAGR) over the entire second rebalancing phase drop to 3.5% a year (i.e. half of what was seen during the first rebalancing), then it will take about 12-14 years for China to complete its second rebalancing and arrive at a state of economy that might generously be described as ‘reasonably balanced’.

5.2 The Productivity Bubble in China

Since the analysis indicates that productivity-growth in China must slow (i.e. the productivity curve must ‘flatten’) in order for China to rebalance, we conclude that productivity has been rising in an un-natural, unsustainable and imbalanced fashion since 2000, with a wasteful reliance on excess-capital and little regard for efficiency. Therefore, what appears as malinvestment (i.e. investment-bubble) in the demand-side analysis appears as a productivity-bubble in the complementary supply-side analysis.

In light of this, here is the key curve to watch as proof of the initiation and continuance of rebalancing in China:

As seen in the graph below, the productivity curve did flatten considerably during the first rebalancing, especially between 1995 and 1999. This clear precedent then gives us the confidence to project that this ‘flattening’ of the productivity curve is indeed what will be seen again in China as it enters into its second rebalancing in the near future.
To get a feel for what a productivity curve ‘flattening’ might look like during China’s upcoming rebalancing, here is a comparison of the current productivity curves of China, Korea & Japan:
http://alturl.com/d8sba
                                 
And here is what the same curves might look like in the future (i.e. projection) if China goes into rebalancing and completes it by 2024. Observe carefully the ‘flattening’ of the productivity curve for China as its rebalancing progresses and growth-rates slow down:
In addition, here is a graph that indicates the same productivity-curve comparison expressed in ‘horizon’ form. The ‘horizon’ form shows the productivities of the trailers (or countries with lower productivity) as a percentage of the productivity of the leader (or the country with the highest productivity) and is useful in visualizing differences:

5.3 The Wild Card

Most of the patterns to be expected in the upcoming rebalancing phase in China can reasonably be projected by an extension of its own past experience with a previous rebalancing phase in the 1990s. The one wild-card in this analysis, however, is the huge housing-bubble in China. The first rebalancing phase did not have to deal with any bubble apart from the mainstream investment-bubble. Mainstream investment-bubbles do not directly affect ordinary households as they are something that corporations/SOEs, financial institutions and governments generate. The current housing-bubble, however, has directly ensnared a lot of ordinary households on the demand-side. Many households have invested large portions of their multi-generational savings into housing, either as a store of wealth like gold, or in hopes of higher-returns. Given this situation, it is not a stretch to imagine that if the housing bubble either bursts or deflates, entire such households may lose their life-time savings and so become fearful about their future. The resulting mass-fear may result in further cut backs in household consumption, thereby making the entire process of rebalancing extremely difficult. Given that was no such added-complexity during the first rebalancing, there is no precedent for us to study. Therefore, the full effects of the housing-bubble on the upcoming second rebalancing are difficult to predict and will remain a Wild Card.

5.4 The Middle Income Trap

Question: After China has finished rebalancing with slow-growth in 10-15 years, will its demographic tipping-point, which arrives around that time, push China into indefinite slow-growth like Japan? Will China necessarily get caught in a Middle-Income Trap (MIT)? Will China necessarily ‘get old before it gets rich’?

Answer: No, this is not a predestined outcome. Here is why:

We note that the stagnation in Japan in the past twenty years-- and the stagnation forecast in Korea in the next twenty years-- is a function of two things: (a) Crossing the demographic barrier (i.e. tipping over into an aging society), and (b) Reaching the productivity horizon (i.e. completing ‘catch-up’).

Even if China slows down for 10-15 years and crosses its own demographic barrier by the time it finishes rebalancing, it would still be far from the productivity horizon (i.e. it would still have some ‘catch-up’ as a source of fast-growth left). Therefore, whether China gets caught in a middle-income trap or not depends on whether China is really capable of doing ‘catch-up’ on the productivity horizon, as shown in the graph below.

We have already noted that ‘productivity’ itself is primarily a function of two things: (a) Capital availability, and (b) Efficiency (or Total-Factor Productivity TFP). Given that China, as a surplus country, has abundant capital, capital-availability should not be a debilitating factor. The issue of efficiency, however, is one that still remains to be tested in China.

Efficiency (or TFP) depends on structural, social and political reforms and refers to a variety of things such as free-competition, minimal bureaucracy, elimination or regulation of monopolies, minimizing social-friction, contract-enforcement, protection of intellectual property, promoting innovation, free-flow of information, environmental protection and so on. If China successfully implements its political, social and economic reforms, it may well be able to increase efficiency and then harness its distance from the productivity horizon as a source of fast-growth after it has completed its rebalancing. If that happens, then China need not get caught in a middle-income trap and may well progress to become a ‘rich country’ like Japan or Korea.

In summary, then, China’s fate ultimately depends on whether the Zhong Guo Gong Chan Dang is willing and able to make the reforms necessary to transform China’s system into one that is actually capable of catching-up with the ‘developed’ countries. China has the required capital and it has the required labor; but does it have the required efficiency to become a ‘developed’ country? This is the key question that remains unanswered. When it is finally answered, one way or the other, China’s pendulum will finally stop swinging.